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Representations and Certifications | |
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By
Anonymous
on Friday, March 08, 2002 - 11:53 am:
Stupid question, but that's the beauty of posting as
"anonymous." By joel hoffman on Friday, March 08, 2002 - 02:16 pm: Generally the Division that the certifier works for. If the certifier is a "sales engineer" or VP of Sales, you can take the cert. to the bathroom and make good use of it. I always ask for certs. from the Engineering Dept. happy sails! joel By joel hoffman on Friday, March 08, 2002 - 02:18 pm: ...or the manufacturing/production dept. or QA Dept. happy sails! joel By Anonymous on Friday, March 08, 2002 - 04:47 pm: Hmmm. Not sure I agree with Joel on this one. Assuming the
original question relates to reps & certs in general, I think
most of them start out by saying something like "the offeror
certifies [or represents] that it . . . ." See, e.g., FAR
52.212-3(c) and 52.222-25. I have always understood this to mean
(and literally I think it does mean) that the cert applies to
the entire offeror entity (which may be an entire corporation or
may be an unincorporated division). By Orig Anon on Friday, March 08, 2002 - 05:17 pm: Anon 447, Thanks. Given the literal language of each rep and
cert, that's what I suspected. However, it seems to be almost
impossible for a large, diversified corporation to make an
accurate cert for its entire entity. By anon1 on Friday, March 08, 2002 - 06:29 pm: Original Anonymous: By Anonymous on Friday, March 08, 2002 - 06:53 pm: Anon 4:47 here. To the original Anon questioner, I agree that
if the offeror is a big company like GE (your example), this
could be a temendous burden. Realistically, however, it is quite
rare (in my experience) that a company like GE (or Lockheed
Martin, Raytheon, Boeing, etc.) is the offeror. Instead, it is
usually a DIVISION of the big corporation that is the offeror.
And the resulting contract is properly awarded to the DIVISION,
not to the huge corporation. By Vern Edwards on Friday, March 08, 2002 - 10:57 pm: It's not a stupid question at all. In fact, it's a very good
question. However, I don't think the question has an
across-the-board answer. I think that each representation or
certification is different and that the required response must
be determined case by case. By Mike Wolff on Monday, March 11, 2002 - 08:59 am: I've always believed that the reps & certs must be submitted
for the legal entity making the offer. For example, a subsidiary
of GE would provide R&C for that legal entity only. However, a
mere division in a company, which in and of itself, is not a
separate legal entity would have to submit the R&C for the
entity it is a division in. By pizoof on Tuesday, April 02, 2002 - 05:08 pm: The offeror. By joel hoffman on Tuesday, April 02, 2002 - 05:36 pm: Just got back to this thread. Sorry, I thought the original question referred to a certification after award, concerning products, e.g., on a construction contract. In my March 8 post, I wasn't referring to reps and certs submitted with an offer or bid. happy sails! joel |