By JackBlue on Thursday, November
07, 2002 - 12:36 pm:
My company has several government contracts in a field where
attending technical conferences is considered standard practice.
These contracts are both T&M and costplus. Typically, the gov't
agrees to pay for standard business hour labor for those
attending conferences, and the company picks up registration,
hotel, airfare, and all other travel expenses.
There is now some debate within the company whether this sharing
of expenses practice is legal. The contention is that either ALL
expenses are paid by gov't - or NO expenses are paid by gov't
for those attending conferences.
Any advice or resources would be appreciated.
By Vern Edwards on Thursday,
November 07, 2002 - 12:43 pm:
Assuming that the expenses in question are allowable costs of
your company's government contracts (see FAR § 31.201-2), then
there is no law against your company agreeing to share the
expenses with the government, i.e., to invoice for only part of
the expenses. That is a business decision. The contention that
either all the expenses or none of the expenses must be paid by
the government is wrong.
By formerfed on Thursday,
November 07, 2002 - 01:05 pm:
I'm glad you came up with that answer, Vern. I started to say I
did something like that while I was in the government. The
contractor and I saw mutual benefit in their employees attending
seminars and conferences, so we came up with a similar plan to
split costs. Then I read this question again and wondered if I
did something wrong. I was close to computing whether the statue
of limitations ran out for me.
By Vern Edwards on Thursday,
November 07, 2002 - 01:38 pm:
JackBlue and formerfed:
The proper way to share allowable costs is to enter into a
written advance agreement (see FAR § 31.109) that identifies
which costs the government will reimburse and which will be
absorbed by the contractor. The agreement should be appended to
the contract and made a part thereof and distributed to any
administrative contracting officer and auditor.
The effect of the advance agreement will be to make the excluded
costs expressly unallowable by agreement. (See FAR § 31.001 for
the definition of expressly unallowable cost.) Such costs, and
any directly associated costs (see FAR § 31.001 for the
definition), must thereafter be handled in accordance with FAR §
31.201-6, Accounting for Unallowable Costs. They cannot be
included in any of the contractor's indirect cost pools.
By Vern Edwards on Thursday,
November 07, 2002 - 01:40 pm:
JackBlue and formerfed:
Ignore the last sentence of my previous post. Just read FAR §
31.201-6, which explains.
By Ron Vogt on Thursday,
November 07, 2002 - 07:53 pm:
Vern,
Why do the contractor's shares have to become expressly
unallowable? There are lots of costs that a contractor incurs
that are not direct costs under a contract, but that are not
unallowable either. They simply are not chargeable to that
contract. Some easy examples that come to mind are IR&D, some
employee morale costs, memberships in professional
organizations, etc. In fact, aren't these particular costs
allowable under 31.205-43, "Trade, business, technical and
professional activity costs"?
I'm not a costs expert, but my guess would be that the
contractor could account for its share the same way it would if
the government did not pick up any part of the tab. If they are
otherwise allowable but not allocable to a particular contract,
wouldn't they just be indirect costs?
I don't see this as much an 'allowable vs unallowable' issue as
it is a 'reimburseable vs not reimburseable' issue under that
contract. Can the advance agreement simply say that X expenses
are reimburseable costs under the contract?
By Vern Edwards on Thursday,
November 07, 2002 - 09:10 pm:
Ron:
I don't buy the distinction you make between allowable and "reimburseable."
A cost is reimburseable only if it is allowable. See, e.g., FAR
52.216-7, paragraphs (a) and (b)(1). If the parties to a
government contract agree that the contractor won't charge
certain allowable costs to that contract, then that cost is
unallowable under that contract. See FAR § 31.201-2(a)(4). If
the cost is a direct cost, then it is not allocable to any other
contract and is, therefore, unallowable under any other
contract, as well as under the contract in question. If the cost
is an indirect cost, then the amount that is allocable to the
contract in question is not allocable to any other contract and
is, therefore, unallowable under any other contract.
You said: "There are lots of costs that a contractor incurs that
are not direct costs under a contract, but that are not
unallowable either. They simply are not chargeable to that
contract." That statement doesn't make sense; any cost that is
not chargeable to a contract is unallowable under that contract.
That is because in order to be allowable under a contract a cost
must be allocable to that contract, and in order to be allocable
to that contract it must be assignable or chargeable to that
contract.
You seem to be confusing different ways of categorizing costs.
Costs are either direct or indirect and either allowable or
unallowable. A direct or an indirect cost may be allowable or
unallowable, depending on the FAR cost principles and the terms
of the contract.
You also said: "If they are otherwise allowable but not
allocable to a particular contract, wouldn't they just be
indirect costs?"
You appear to be confused about the concepts of allowable and
allocable and direct and indirect. Allocability is an element of
allowability. See FAR § 31.201-2(a) and § 31.201-4. See FAR §
31.202 for a discussion of direct costs and § 31.203 for a
discussion of indirect costs.
Vern
By Ron Vogt on Friday, November
08, 2002 - 01:07 pm:
Vern,
OK, as I stated in my message, I'm not an expert on costs, and
maybe I'm not using the terms precisely. I can certainly learn
more in this area, and I will be more precise in using direct vs
indirect instead of reimburseable.
Nevertheless, you haven't answered my question: Why must the
contractor's share be expressly unallowable? IR&D, employee
morale costs, professional memberships, certain training, etc.,
are all allowable, but are usually indirect costs because they
do not benefit a single cost objective. Here, attendance at
technical conferences seem to be expressly allowable under
31.205-43. Why does the contractor's share become unallowable,
and excluded even from indirect cost pools, simply because the
government has agreed to pick up some of the tab? After all, if
the government paid for none of it directly, wouldn't these be
proper, allowable indirect costs?
If I am confused about the definitions of allowable and
allocable, I may not be the only one. I believe that the courts
and boards have admitted on many occasions that the definitions
are circular (costs are allocable if they are allowable, and
allowable if they are allocable).
I think that part of the original question has been answered:
the splitting of costs is OK. Now, how do you treat the
contractor's share?
By Anon on Friday, November 08,
2002 - 01:21 pm:
Costs can be allocable but not allowable. For instance, a
contractor borrows x amount to finance an effort for a single
contract. The interest on that loan can be said to be allocable
to that contract but FAR 31.205 states that interest is an
unallowable cost and therefore while the interest can be
attributed to that particular contract, the government is not
billed, nor does it recognize and pay, for the interest costs.
The interest comes out of the contractor's profit/fee.
By Anonymous on Friday,
November 08, 2002 - 02:55 pm:
I think the original "all or none" idea reflects the concept of
allocability. Either the trip is reasonable and necessary for
performance of the contract and allocable to it or it isn't. If
it is allocable, then all of its allowable costs can be charged
to the contract.
I suspect the real issue here is that the conference attendance
is not really essential for performance of the contract, but is
mostly for the the benefit of the attendees (as training to
acquire or maintain expertise in the field). The current
compromise arrangement suggests that the Government agency is
not willing to pay the full tab for something of questionable
benefit to them.
They also may be looking at the statutory prohibition in 31 USC
1345. That language prohibits payment of travel, transportation,
or subsistence expenses of private parties at meetings without
specific statutory authority. While GAO has held this
prohibition does not extend to grantees (55 Comp Gen 750), they
have held that it does apply to contractors (62 Comp Gen 531).
Personally, I have always thought the FAR cost principle needed
to do more to address this and to explain when the expenses may
be charged to the government and when they are precluded by the
above statute, and when they can be considered allocable to an
individual contract and when they need to go into an indirect
cost pool. At present, I suspect agencies are fairly
inconsistent in what kinds of training or conferences they are
willing to pay for as direct charges, which has to force
contractors into a position of accounting for these costs
inconsistently.
By Vern Edwards on Friday,
November 08, 2002 - 05:21 pm:
Ron:
You said: "Here, attendance at technical conferences seem to be
expressly allowable under 31.205-43. Why does the contractor's
share become unallowable, and excluded even from indirect cost
pools, simply because the government has agreed to pick up some
of the tab? After all, if the government paid for none of it
directly, wouldn't these be proper, allowable indirect costs?"
First off, the conference attendance costs (labor and travel)
are either direct or indirect; that issue is entirely distinct
from the issue of whether they are allowable or unallowable. Do
you understand that? If the costs are direct, then they are
allocable to the contract in their entirety; if they are
indirect, then only a portion of them are allocable to the
contract, the rest being allocable to other contracts.
Understand?
Assuming that the costs, direct or indirect, are allowable, then
the contractor is entitled to reimbursement of those costs. If
the contractor agrees to "share" the costs, that means it has
agreed not to seek some of the reimbursement to which it would
otherwise have been entitled. It means that the contractor has
promised not to seek reimbursement for those costs, to forgo
making what would otherwise be a legitimate demand. That promise
is contractually enforceable.
Let's assume that the cost-sharing agreement stipulates that the
government will reimburse the contractor for the labor costs of
employees attending a conference, but that the contractor will
not seek reimbursement of the travel costs. That agreement makes
the travel costs unallowable by contractual agreement.
"Unallowable" simply means that the contractor cannot get
reimbursed for them. Now look at the definition of "expressly
unallowable cost" in FAR 31.001, which is as follows: "a
particular item or type of cost which, under the express
provisions of an applicable law, regulation, or contract, is
specifically named and stated to be unallowable."
Declaring the travel costs to be unallowable does not mean that
they are illegitimate; it simply means that the contractor will
not be entitled to reimubursement of those costs under the terms
of the contract, in this case by mutual agreement.
You asked: "Why does the contractor's share become unallowable,
and excluded even from indirect cost pools, simply because the
government has agreed to pick up some of the tab?" You don't
understand. The government has not agreed to pick up some of the
tab; the contractor has agreed not to seek reimbursement to
which it would otherwise have been entitled. Having made that
agreement, it would not make sense for the government to let the
contractor get the money some other way, by adding the portion
of the costs that were properly allocable to the contract in
question to an indirect cost pool and recovering it from other
government contracts.
Get it?
There is no need to bring the courts and boards into this. This
is not a matter of case law; this is a matter of understanding
the fundamentals of the government contract cost principles.
By Vern Edwards on Friday,
November 08, 2002 - 06:06 pm:
Anonymous of Nov. 8 at 02:55p.m.:
You wrote: "I suspect the real issue here is that the conference
attendance is not really essential for performance of the
contract, but is mostly for the the benefit of the attendees (as
training to acquire or maintain expertise in the field). The
current compromise arrangement suggests that the Government
agency is not willing to pay the full tab for something of
questionable benefit to them."
The costs of conference attendance are either allowable or not.
If the costs are allowable, then the agency has no choice but to
reimburse the contractor for those costs, whether it likes it or
not. To refuse to reimburse the contractor for an allowable cost
would be a breach of contract. If the costs are unallowable,
then the agency cannot agree to pay any part of those costs
unless it obtains approval for a FAR deviation. See FAR §
31.101.
When a contractor "shares" a cost, it has agreed not to seek
reimbursement to which it would otherwise be entitled. This is
not a matter of the government agreeing to reimburse part of
some cost that it otherwise would not reimburse. The only costs
that the government can refuse to reimburse are unallowable
costs; the only costs that the government can agree to reimburse
are allowable costs.
We don't know why JackBlue's company is sharing the costs of
conference attendance with the government. Maybe it doesn't know
what it is entitled to (that's what it sounds like to me); on
the other hand, maybe it isn't entitled to anything, but the
government doesn't know that and is making reimbursement anyway.
Ignorance is rife in our business.
By Vern Edwards on Friday,
November 08, 2002 - 07:03 pm:
Anonymous:
There is another possible scenario, and maybe this is what you
were talking about. I'll explain it through the following
example:
Let's suppose that a company has a cost-reimbursement contract
for security services at a government facility. The contractor's
owner gets a flyer in the mail for an anti-terrorist seminar and
thinks that she and some of her shift managers could learn
something that would improve the company's contract performance
and make the facility safer. She'd like to attend and take her
shift managers.
There is nothing in the contract statement of work about
attending seminars and she's afraid to go and include the costs
in an invoice out of fear that the contracting officer would say
that seminar attendance was not required by the contract and
that the cost was, therefore, unreasonable and unallowable.
Alternatively, the contracting officer might say that the cost
was not directly allocable to the contract and had to be
included in the contractor's indirect costs. See FAR §§
31.201-2(a)(1), 31.201-3(b), and 31.201-4. Admittedly, the owner
could include the cost in her overhead and allocate only part of
it to the contract, but her other contracts are fixed-price,
which means that the allocation to them would reduce her
profits. Moreover, she doesn't think that terrorism is a
significant threat to her other customers, which are small, and
so she feels that the government customer should pay the cost,
since that's the customer that would benefit.
When the owner approaches the government's COTR, he says that
he'd be willing to pay part of the cost, so he writes a letter
to the contracting officer saying that he thinks seminar
attendance would be beneficial to the government. The
contracting officer tells the contractor and the COTR that she
doesn't think attendance is required by the statement of work,
but agrees to give the contractor a letter authorizing specific
contractor employees to attend as part of contract performance,
conditioned upon an advance agreement to the effect that the
contractor would seek reimbursement for only the price of
seminar attendance, but not for travel costs. The contractor
agrees to that arrangement.
Essentially, what the parties have done is agreed to an
interpretation of the contract and an advance agreement that
makes the seminar costs allowable, but only in part. This does
not entail a deviation from the FAR.
By John Ford on Thursday,
November 14, 2002 - 11:09 am:
Instead of focusing on advance agreements, another way of
approaching this is through a cost sharing contract. Such an
arrangement only involves one contract and does not need to get
into the procedures for an advance agreement as described in FAR
31.109.
On another point, unallowable costs are allocable to contracts
as well as allowable costs. Only by allocating all costs that
benefit a contract to that contract can the government determine
the true cost of its activities.
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