By
Vern Edwards
on Tuesday, April 11, 2000 - 08:15 pm:
Eric:
(1) My feelings aren't hurt; really, it's okay, Man.
(2) Huh?
(3) I love ya, Man.
By
Eric Ottinger on
Tuesday, April 11, 2000 - 05:57 pm:
Vern,
As usual I am sorry that your feelings are hurt. Please energize
a competent Juris Doctor or a competent grammarian to continue
this thread if you wish to see it continued.
If I say, “John, who is my brother-in-law, who is my tenant,
shovels the walk….” One might conclude that John is my
brother-in-law, and one might conclude that John lives in the
basement. You wouldn’t conclude that John is a shovel. There is
no entity called “a release”, in the standard boilerplate
release.
Whether the Congress and the Courts are careless or loose in
their choice of words, I will leave to the constant reader.
This thread was a distraction tacked onto another thread, which
was going off into the unproductively hypothetical. I think we
have all been “practicing law without a license.”
As usual on these treasure hunts, I have learned a few things
along the way. Courtesy of CON 210 I know that equitable
adjustment is a murky and contentious issue. This will keep me
from being dogmatic in the future. I will distinguish “equitable
adjustment” which is what we do under the “Changes” clause, from
“equitable” adjustment which is an adjustment based on the
principles of equity law. (Or so I conclude, until I get better
advice from Counsel.)
By the way, I am not particularly liberal on usage issues. I
don’t like to see “impact” used as a verb and it really grates
when “currency” is used to indicate that something is current or
up to date. (The AF uses “recency” which has the minor advantage
that it is in the dictionary. I don’t think you will see
“recency” used much anywhere else.) However, I don’t have any
particular urge to be constantly correcting my colleagues on
this kind of issue.
By the time my daughter is my age, I am sure that the use of
“impact” as a verb will be standard English. The use of currency
to mean something other than lucre will go away, I hope, because
it is unnecessary as well as ugly. So it goes.
Regards to all,
Eric
By
Vern Edwards
on Thursday, April 6, 2000 - 03:17 am:
Eric:
"In consideration of... the contractor hereby releases..." It
seems clear enough to me: the contractor's release is the
consideration given in return for the modification.
Your point seems to be that words mean whatever the user says
they mean and that people who won't accept a user's definition
are dogmatic and inflexible. I understand you.
My point is that consideration and equitable adjustment are
different concepts and we should not let the various usages that
we encounter confuse us about the differences. Since you say
that nobody really disagrees with me, my work here is done.
By
Ramon Jackson on Wednesday, April 5, 2000 - 07:19 pm:
Eric,
Got me going?! I merely observed that English is a rich language
with many words having multiple acceptable, even authoratative,
meanings further shaded by individual or group experience and
that a documented resolution within the specific context before
setting off expending significant money or effort is likely to
save in the long run. Vern innocently offered an opportunity to
explore an example -- actually a rather simple one unless we
wish to extend into the origins of French royal titles.
Assumption, even within a specific environment, that everyone
knows what is meant is so often the cause of later difficulties.
Those who recognize the problem will more eagerly make use of
RFI "proof reading," encourage questioning, spend time on
further definition at kick off and use those other tools that
assist in smoothly moving toward a goal vice swirling and
offering opportunity to those who obstruct by redefining terms
of reference by word play.
Ramon
By
Eric Ottinger on
Wednesday, April 5, 2000 - 12:22 pm:
Ramon,
If I can respond more exactly to your point. Of course, usage is
a more authoritative guide than a dictionary definition. And, of
course, the usage of the best writers and the acknowledged
experts in any particular field is going to take precedence over
common or casual usage.
I’m sure that Black’s Law Dictionary is a fine authority, but I
doubt that it ever takes precedence over the most authoritative
case law. Similarly, lexicographers are constantly collecting
instances of current usage.
Unfortunately, much of the training and education in our field
encourages inexperienced 1102’s to be dogmatic and inflexible.
(Or, maybe. dogmatic and inflexible people select our career
field.)
I remember a very unpleasant encounter with a young woman who
was convinced that I was greatly in error when I referred in
writing to “selection criteria.” As far as she was concerned,
these were “factors,” and she wasn’t going to give any
encouragement to my obvious ignorance and stupidity.
She wasn’t stupid and she wasn’t badly trained. In fact, she was
highly intelligent, very capable, and well trained. And that is
what is frightening.
Eric
By
Eric Ottinger on
Wednesday, April 5, 2000 - 11:38 am:
Ramon,
I’m not quite sure what I said that got you going, but of
course, I agree. Now, we all know why Mahi Mahi is so popular.
Nobody wants the kids to think that they are eating Flipper.
I think the Bible, or at least some interpreters, characterize
Jonah’s whale as a fish. Vern’s point was cogent but just a
little off target.
Eric
By
Ramon Jackson on Wednesday, April 5, 2000 - 11:08 am:
Eric,
The point I was trying to make is that the English language is
so rich in usages and shadings for words that we often run into
difficulties even when using dictionary definitions.
A great deal of the baggage (not used in a negative sense) we
bring with a word is based on unique experience. We have some
fun with that in things like these discussions, but when
negotiating or seeking common agreement for actual work I
believe some time resolving those understanding gaps is time
saved.
In one case we had the assembled contractor team and program
office team to go through each line of the specifications
together. The Contractor would take a line and tell us what it
meant. In a number of cases that was a "What?" from us that
turned out to be perfectly logical from the contractor's
experience. We resolved experience with the terminology while I
recorded the resolution on a laptop. We were able to then
process an RFC to the specification that precisely defined the
common understanding. It saved quite a few discussions later and
I believe assisted understanding by new team members as we'd
ironed out areas of possible different, but legitimate,
understandings.
We hope wider context provides definitional support, but
sometimes we assume too much. Strange things can happen when we
fail to recognize that what we meant does not necessarialy click
in the same way with others. If I use "tie to the dolphin" in a
nautical sense I might think I'm perfectly clear in meaning "tie
the vessel to the spar or bouy" (pure nautical use) while my
contractor, experienced in another marine field, wonders how he
is going to catch one of those animals for us to tie up to.
Ramon
By
Eric Ottinger on
Wednesday, April 5, 2000 - 09:35 am:
Kudos to Ramon for enlightenment
in things ichthyological. I’m sure Vern knows the difference and
he meant to write “whales” but wrote “dolphins” by some slip of
the pen.
Since the definition which Vern considers loose is supported by
authoritative dictionary definitions and numerous cites from
Congress, Courts and Boards, I am not inclined to think that
there is anything careless or loose in the usage.
The Merriam Webster Dictionary has an “a)” definition for
“consideration” which is simply “payment” or “recompense.” The
“b)” definition (presumably the more restrictive, more
technical, definition) is the same as Vern’s definition.
I am comfortable using the “a)” definition and so, apparently,
are Congress and the Courts. The “a)” definition is broad enough
that it encompasses “equitable adjustment.”
The Cornell Law School Legal Information Institute defines
“adequate consideration” as follows--
“To be legally binding as a contract a promise must be exchanged
for adequate consideration. Adequate consideration is a benefit
or detriment which a party receives which reasonably and fairly
induces them to make the promise/contract”
(
http://www.law.cornell.edu/ )
Cornell can distinguish the definition from the context. What
consideration “is” (i.e. benefit or detriment) is not the same
thing as what it “does” (i.e. it must be exchanged).
(Vern:) “The language of the standard release cannot support the
argument that the equitable adjustment is consideration for the
change. Read it. It says that the contractor's release is the
consideration for the adjustment.”
Vern, I did read the standard release. It says—As consideration
(i.e. payment) for the modification, which is the equitable
adjustment for the Contractor’s proposal, the Contractor hereby
RELEASES …
“In consideration of the modification(s) agreed to herein as
complete equitable adjustments for the Contractor’s
__________(describe) __________“proposal(s) for adjustment,” the
Contractor hereby releases the Government from any and all
liability under this contract for further equitable adjustments
attributable to such facts or circumstances giving rise to the
“proposal(s) for adjustment” (except for __________).”
“Releases” is a verb, not a noun, in this sentence. To the best
of my knowledge, there is no way in the English language to
equate a noun (i.e. consideration) with a verb (i.e. releases).
Please, go back, read carefully, and explain how you concluded
that the release is the consideration.
Cornell led me to --
41 U.S.C. Sec. 117. Defective, informal, and quasi contracts
b) Technical defects or omissions
“Whenever any formal or technical defect or omission in any
prime contract, or in any grant of authority to an officer or
agent of a contracting agency who ordered any materials,
services, and facilities might invalidate the contract or
commitment, the contracting agency (1) shall not take advantage
of such defect or omission; (2) shall amend, confirm, or ratify
such contract or commitment without consideration in order to
cure such defect or omission; and (3) shall make a fair
settlement of any obligation thereby created or incurred by such
agency, whether expressed or implied, in fact or in law, or in
the nature of an implied or quasi contract.”
We go from a defective contract, which is not binding, to a
binding contract and do it without “consideration.”
Now this “consideration” is clearly not the consideration needed
to make the contract binding (which was not binding before.) In
fact, it is the “without” consideration. I think this
“consideration” (which we do without) is simply a quid for a
quo, nor more, no less.
(Vern:) “ In the case of services, if nonconforming services
cannot be reperformed, the government may reduce the price or
fee to reflect the "reduced value" of the services. This does
not entail accepting them; AND REDUCTION TO REFLECT "REDUCED
VALUE" IS NOT THE SAME AS EQUITABLE ADJUSTMENT.
Since acceptance of nonconforming supplies or services is not
covered by a contract clause, it would be a new promise that
would have to be supported by consideration, such as a price
reduction or some other quid pro quo.”
OK Vern, you’ve got me confused. The FAR specifically talks
about an “equitable adjustment” “for the nonconforming
services.”
FAR 46.407: “For services, the contracting officer can consider
identifying the value of the individual work requirements or
tasks (subdivisions) that may be subject to price or fee
reduction. This value may be used to determine an EQUITABLE
ADJUSTMENT for nonconforming services…”
Once more. Nobody really disagrees with the distinction that
Vern and John have made. Along with Congress and many Judges I
will continue to use the term “consideration” to mean simply a
quid for a quo, no more and no less. If a real Juris Doctor
wants to comment on this issue, I will be interested in what
he/she has to say.
Eric
By
Ramon Jackson on Tuesday, April 4, 2000 - 09:53 pm:
Vern,
You've also identified a problem, though I'd guess purely by
accident, in saying "some people call dolphins 'fish'" in the
"consideration" discussion. Some do -- accurately -- as it is a
widely and long used common name for the small toothed whales
(mammals) and a very beautiful blue, green, and gold oceanic
fish found in warm waters. The latter is Dorado (some Latin
America) or Mahi Mahi (Hawaii) and commonly served (with Florida
restaurants widely adopting the other two names after incidents
of wailing children thinking "Flipper" was on the menu). Even
marine scientist can be found using the common terms, but not in
professional papers.
I don't care to count the hours lost in enthusiastic discussions
to outright arguments that were based on two word usages, both
correct within a particular experience or discipline, but where
only one applied to the case at hand. More than a few involved
contracts or developments.
People don't like to do it, sometimes resent it, but careful
term definition for important matters is required. So is rapid
identification of when two usages are causing problems and
recognition that agreement on terms must be in advance to real
progress.
Ramon
By
Vern Edwards
on Tuesday, April 4, 2000 - 03:07 pm:
Peggy:
I agree with you (and Joel) that a court would enforce the
clause. Parties to a contract do not need to exchange new
consideration when they comply with the terms of their contract,
including the terms of the changes clause.
Compliance with change orders and providing equitable
adjustments when required are covered by the original
consideration; the parties do not need to exchange new
consideration when they do what the contract requires of them.
Making an equitable adjustment when required is an element of
contract performance, like requesting consent to subcontract
when required.
Entitlement to an equitable adjustment is based on what is
called a condition precedent -- that if the change causes
a change in the cost or time of performance, then the
parties will adjust the price or time in an amount equal to the
amount of the change. The condition is part of the contract at
the time of award and compliance with it entails no new
promises, thus no new consideration.
Eric has shown us, and I acknowledge, that contracting parties
and even judges use terms like consideration and equitable
adjustment loosely and in ways that are not always consistent
with the legal concepts that they represent. We have to accept
that, but we should not allow such loose usages to confuse us
about the true nature of those legal concepts.
Some people call all forms of negotiated settlements "equitable
adjustments"; some people call equitable adjustments
"consideration"; and some people call dolphins "fish." But
saying it don't make it so. That's the only point I'm trying to
make.
By joel on Tuesday, April 4,
2000 - 12:16 pm:
Peggy, I had worked up a
response to the hypothetical contract requirement but it got
lost in a tornado drill, yesterday.....
I believe that a court would uphold the clause, unless the
seller could prove that the clause was "unconscionable", which
is apparently rare. More likely to be used against the seller
than against the buyer - in cases of excessively hard bargaining
by a seller at the expense of a small buyer with weak purchasing
power, for example. Court's don't generally consider the wisdom
of the contract or the adequacy of the consideration to
determine validity. Fraudulent inducement is another exception
to the above. Happy Sails! Joel
By
Peggy Richter on
Tuesday, April 4, 2000 - 11:30 am:
By Vern Edwards: Peggy: Suppose
that two parties negotiate a $1,000,000 firm-fixed-price act and
agree to include the following clause among its
terms: (b) The seller agrees to comply with such orders at no
additional cost to the buyer.
Now suppose that the buyer issues a written order that changes
the drawings within scope, and that the change will cost the
seller $10,000. Suppose further that the seller refuses to
comply
with the buyer's order because doing that would shift value to
the buyer without compensating the seller. Do you think that a
court would refuse to enforce that clause because it doesn't
require the buyer to provide the seller with an equitable
adjustment?
== No. I think the court would enforce it. HOWEVER you have
added the following to the standard clause: (b) The seller
agrees to comply with such orders at no additional cost to the
buyer. Now if a contractor is silly enough to SIGN a contract
with that in there, then they have in fact agreed that the
change you suggest is covered by the initial quid pro quo (value
for value received). In other words, NO CHANGE has actually
occurred in the agreement. Now in a STANDARD Changes clause
(i.e. one without that (b) The seller agrees to comply with such
orders at no additional cost to the buyer.), if you make a
change in the drawings and it changes the required manufacture
EITHER UP OR DOWN, then yes, you are required to do a value for
value received adjustment. The difference is that in the ONE
contract you have this covered in the initial agreement and in
the other you don't. It's still value for value received.
As to enforcement in a court of law, I suspect that if someone
did use such terminology and the contractor felt the change was
too big a change in value and there was enough $ involved, then
they'd probably take that OTHER route for redress - go to their
congressman and the news media. And of course if they were a big
enough contractor, they would remember the fairness of this deal
(generic term, not a legal one) the next time the Government
went to deal with them. That isn't something generally talked
about in contracting classes nor is it a "legal" issue - but
strangely enough, contractors (and government contracts folk -
it goes both ways) tend to remember if you "stiff" them,
regardless if it was legal or not.
And this underlies something that IMO isn't covered by
contractual law or court cases, but is based on plain ordinary
"horse trading" - people (and companies) remember if you deal
fairly with them or not and if you expect to ultimately do the
best job possible for the public as a Government employee then
your best bet is to be fair (not to always agree with the other
party) and if you expect to ultimately do the best job possible
for your company then your best bet is to be fair (not to always
agree with the other party). Long term, your best bargains are
based on mutual benefit not each side trying forever to see if
they can "pull one over" the other guy.
By
Vern Edwards
on Tuesday, April 4, 2000 - 07:16 am:
Eric:
When you get a chance, check out the Uniform Commercial Code,
Sec. 2-209(1).
By
Vern Edwards
on Monday, April 3, 2000 - 11:54 pm:
Eric:
One more thing: The cases you cited dealt with matters of accord
and satisfaction. Accord and satisfaction is not the same as an
equitable adjustment under a contract clause. An accord and
satisfaction is a settlement in which a party accepts less than
that to which it was entitled. Quoting from one of your quotes:
"An accord is an agreement by one party to give or perform and
by the other party to accept, in settlement or satisfaction of
any existing or matured claim, something other than that
which is claimed to be due." Underlining added. And from
another: "Discharge by accord and satisfaction means a discharge
by the rendering of some performance different from that
which was claimed as due and the acceptance of such
substituted performance by the claimant as full satisfaction of
his claim." Underlining added.
Unlike an equitable adjustment under a contract clause, an
accord and satisfaction is a new promise that must be supported
by consideration. (Did you look up accord and satisfaction in
your Webster's? What did it say? Did you check a professional's
dictionary, like Black's?)
For instance, the Pacific Ship Repair case that you cited dealt
with bilateral modifications which settled claims based on
defective specifications, not with change orders issued pursuant
to a changes clause. It would be appropriate to use the word
consideration in such cases, since the contractor's performance
was not required by a clause that was already supported by
adequate consideration.
In the case of nonconforming supplies or services, acceptance of
such supplies or services would require consideration, since,
despite FAR 46.407, the FAR inspection clauses make no provision
for such acceptance. Read them, they speak only of rejection and
removal, replacement, or correction. In the case of services, if
nonconforming services cannot be reperformed, the government may
reduce the price or fee to reflect the "reduced value" of the
services. This does not entail accepting them; and reduction to
reflect "reduced value" is not the same as equitable adjustment.
Since acceptance of nonconforming supplies or services is not
covered by a contract clause, it would be a new promise that
would have to be supported by consideration, such as a price
reduction or some other quid pro quo.
By
Vern Edwards
on Monday, April 3, 2000 - 10:37 pm:
Eric:
The language of the standard release cannot support the argument
that the equitable adjustment is consideration for the change.
Read it. It says that the contractor's release is the
consideration for the adjustment.
By
Eric Ottinger on
Monday, April 3, 2000 - 06:50 pm:
The standard release WAS the
most cogent argument. However, the ASBCA has provided a more
cogent argument.
See “Pacific Ship Repair & Fabrication, Inc.”
http://www.law.gwu.edu/asbca/decis00.htm
“’The essential elements of an effective accord and satisfaction
are proper subject matter, competent parties, meeting of the
minds of the parties, and CONSIDERATION.
Emerson-Sack-Warner Corp., v. United States, 416 F.2d 1335, 189
Ct. Cl. 264, 277-78 (1969).
This record shows that 23 bilateral JO modifications, executed
from 22 March to 23 November 1994, EQUITABLY ADJUSTED 31 change
orders (“price proposals”) to correct defective LSWE
specifications, which constituted a proper subject matter. Those
modifications were agreed upon by competent parties and were
supported by $1,345,822 CONSIDERATION. Each such modification
identified by number the “price proposals” which it equitably
adjusted. Each “price proposal” identified by number PSRF’s IDRs,
if any, that gave rise to each “price proposal.” Each IDR
identified the constructive change arising from the defective
LSWE specifications and drawings. (Finding 21) Mayfair Const.
Co./Capital Communications Corp., A Joint Venture, NASA BCA No.
578-12, 80-1 BCA 14,440 at 71,192 (amendments referred to
changes directly traceable to RFIs; thus, pre-change order
claims were discharged). Respondent prima facie established the
four elements of accord and satisfaction.”
If you put “accord and satisfaction” into a search engine you
will get numerous other hits.
LBCA, GOV-CONT 89,012 , Brero Construction, Inc., (Sep. 29,
1999)
Modifications--Bar to Claims--Consideration. A modification
settling change order proposals was supported by adequate
consideration, despite the fact that no additional costs were
allowed for one of the change orders, because the modification,
taken as a whole, was an accord and satisfaction. The
modification settled 71 change order proposals and listed each
separately with the amount to be paid for each. The contractor
argued that because no amount was paid for the disputed change
order proposal, no consideration existed for an accord and
satisfaction. This argument was rejected, however, because the
modification settled the claims on a lump sum basis, providing
the necessary consideration.
US-FED-CLAIMS, 38 CCF 76,430 , CYR Construction Company v. The
United States, (Nov. 18, 1992)
Accord and satisfaction refers to a method to discharge and
terminate existing rights. It provides a perfect defense in an
action for enforcement of a previous claim, whether that claim
was well founded or not. An accord is an agreement by one party
to give or perform and by the other party to accept, in
settlement or satisfaction of any existing or matured claim,
something other than that which is claimed to be due. The
process of making an accord is the same as in the case of other
contracts.
The following elements are essential to an accord and
satisfaction: (1) proper subject matter; (2) competent parties;
(3) resolution of a bona fide dispute between the parties; (4)
meeting of the minds of the parties; and (5) consideration.
US-CL-CT, 35 CCF 75,616 , King Fisher Marine Service, Inc. v.
The United States., (Jan. 24, 1989)
C. Accord and Satisfaction
The doctrine of accord and satisfaction operates to discharge or
terminate an existing right. See Chesapeake & Potomac Telephone
Co. v. United States [23 CCF 81,488], 228 Ct.Cl. 101, 654 F.2d
711 (1981) (citing 6 Corbin on Contracts §1276 (1962)).
“Discharge by accord and satisfaction ‘means a discharge by the
rendering of some performance different from that which was
claimed as due and the acceptance of such substituted
performance by the claimant as full satisfaction of his claim.'”
Brock & Blevins Co. v. United States [10 CCF 72,981], 170 Ct.Cl.
52, 343 F.2d 951 (1965) (quoting Corbin, supra, §1276). The
operative elements of an accord and satisfaction are as follows:
“Proper subject matter, competent parties, meeting of the minds
of the parties, and consideration ... [and acceptance] of
payment or performance in satisfaction of a claim or demand
which is a bona fide dispute.” Nevada Half Moon Mining Co. v.
Combined Metals Reduction Co., 176 F.2d 73, 76 (10th Cir. 1949),
quoted in Brock & Blevins, 170 Ct.Cl. at 59, 343 F.2d at 955.
Getting back to the standard release, I said “most cogent”
because I doubt there is anything casual or accidental in the
standard release. I trust that it was written with the help of
highly competent legal counsel.
With a little help from my trusty “Webster’s,” I read the
standard release as follows:
In consideration of [as payment or recompense for] the
modification(s) agreed to herein [to serve] as complete
equitable adjustments for the Contractor’s __________(describe)
__________“proposal(s) for adjustment,” the Contractor hereby
releases the Government from any and all liability under this
contract for further equitable adjustments attributable to such
facts or circumstances giving rise to the “proposal(s) for
adjustment” (except for __________).
The “equitable adjustment” is clearly the “payment”, the
“recompense” and the “consideration”.
However, let’s not go off on a single tangent.
FAR 46.407 “Nonconforming supplies or services” uses the terms
“equitable price reduction,” “other consideration” and
“equitable adjustment” to describe the recompense for the
contractor’s non-conformance. Is this a careless or merely
casual usage?
In FOGARTY, TRUSTEE v. U. S. the Supreme Court talks about
modifications “without regard to consideration.”
At what point in this scenario would the validity or
enforceability of the contract ever have been an issue?
Similarly, Congress allowed us incorporate FASA clauses without
consideration. As far as I can tell these contracts remained
valid and enforceable at all points throughout this process. Did
I miss something?
Joel,
You may be right. But, if so, the ASBCA made a vulgar error
characterizing the $1,345,822 as “consideration.”
If we follow your logic, I think we would have to say that there
is a distinct element of consideration for each of numerous
clauses in the contract. Maybe, but I doubt it.
Eric
By
Vern Edwards
on Monday, April 3, 2000 - 05:40 pm:
Joel:
Yes, we are in agreement.
However, allow me to suggest that there is nothing to be gained
by saying that consideration and equitable adjustment are
"related." That doesn't help people to understand the important
distinction between the concepts and only leads to more
questions, such as, in what way(s) are they "related."
Consideration is something given in exchange for something else
in order to seal a bargain. An equitable adjustment is
compensation for the impact of an act or omission that is due
because certain contract clauses require such compensation in
certain circumstances; it is not needed and does not serve to
seal a bargain.
It often happens that consideration and equitable adjustment are
both about money, consideration often taking the form of a
promise to pay and equitable adjustment often taking the form of
a change in the stipulated amount of a payment. But except for
the fact that sometimes they are both about payment, they are
different concepts, because they serve different purposes.
By
joel hoffman
on Monday, April 3, 2000 - 01:15 pm:
Vern, I 've been on vacation, so
haven't closely followed this thread.
I thought I put it simply in my "March 24, 3:37 P.M." post.
In a bilateral contract, each party makes (a) promise(s) to the
other. The promise which one party makes to is consideration for
the promise made by the other.
When the contract was formed, both parties accepted the terms of
the various clauses. In the Changes Clause, for example, the
Government promised to make an equitable adjustment to the
contract price, the delivery schedule, or both - if a change
order will increase or decrease the Contractor's cost and/or
schedule - and if the Contractor properly notifies the
Government, etc., etc. By accepting this term of the RFP or IFB
and executing the original contract offer or the contract form,
the Contractor promised it will perform the change, when
directed to proceed with it.
Thus, the Government's PROMISE of an equitable adjustment when
appropriate because the Contractor promised to perform the
change by accepting the contract clause, was the Government's
consideration. Yes, we can distinguish this PROMISE from the
actual equitable adjustment - the $$$ money or time extension.
I'll admit I was originally confused as to whether the PROMISE
or the actual EQUITABLE ADJUSTMENT is "consideration". I'm now
pretty certain that the PROMISE to provide an equitable
adjustment is the "consideration".
Thus, you are correct that no additional "consideration" is
required to make the parties perform the change or to provide
the adjustment. Performance and payment are matters of
discharging existing obligations. My point is that consideration
and equitable adjustments are related. With those distinctions
made between consideration and equitable adjustments, are we in
agreement, now? Happy Sails! Joel
By
Vern Edwards
on Thursday, March 30, 2000 - 03:26 pm:
Peggy:
Suppose that two parties negotiate a $1,000,000 firm-fixed-price
contract and agree to include the following clause among its
terms:
CHANGES
(a) The buyer may at any time, by written order, and without
notice to the sureties, if any, make changes within the general
scope of this contract in any one or more of the following:
(1) Drawings, designs, or specifications when the supplies to be
furnished are to be specially manufactured for the buyer in
accordance with the drawings, designs, or specifications.
(2) Method of shipping or packing.
(3) Place of delivery.
(b) The seller agrees to comply with such orders at no
additional cost to the buyer.
End of Clause
Now suppose that the buyer issues a written order that changes
the drawings within scope, and that the change will cost the
seller $10,000. Suppose further that the seller refuses to
comply with the buyer's order because doing that would shift
value to the buyer without compensating the seller. Do you think
that a court would refuse to enforce that clause because it
doesn't require the buyer to provide the seller with an
equitable adjustment?
Please note that I'm not asking
whether such a clause would be fair or good business practice.
I'm just asking whether the clause would be enforceable in court |