By Z. Hrozsmencko
on Wednesday, April 5, 2000 - 04:04 pm:
To address Brian's comments,
when it appears that the COTR (of known integrity flaws) is at
the source of the issue, compounded by an over-zealous prime's
contracting officer, it would seem that getting the
subcontractor's executives to address the issue with competent
counsel would be the most positive approach. Enough people
within the sub's staff have spoken to their executives about
their concerns, and as a result, executives are addressing the
issue with counsel. It is hoped that this will clear up the
matter, since the contract itself does not specifically address
the suspect practice.
One could infer from Brian's comments that one should shut up
when a practice is suspect, rather than raise concerns to
prevent one from having to address grand juries or hill
committees. If a suspect practice IS proper, despite
appearances, the contract would necessarily have to be worded
such as to allay concerns unequivocally. Absent that precise
data, the practice should, for appearances sake, be avoided
until competent counsel has examined the practice and pronounced
it appropriate and legal. If a concern IS raised that causes a
contracting officer or administrator to be examined more
closely, then perhaps the practice should be avoided until
reworded to survive light of day.
I can see Ron's point about billing for a product used more than
once, but there is a certain amount of justification in that
re-use implies the labor of re-examination of the contents in
the context of the new usage.
The bottom line here is that the practice is questionable based
on the wording of the contract, and that executives are speaking
with counsel to resolve the issue positively, unlike some who
would sweep it under the rug.
By
Ron Vogt on
Thursday, March 30, 2000 - 03:17 pm:
This should be a good lesson on
why it's important not to jump to conclusions based on
assumptions. Many unwarranted whistleblower cases are directed
at legal and proper practices that happen to offend the
sensibilities of someone.
Let's look at it another way. Suppose Customer A contracts with
Vendor to produce a study. There is nothing proprietary in the
study, and there are no restrictions on Vendor's use of the
study afterwards. That study has a certain value, measured
largely by the cost to produce it. Now Customer B wants a
similar study. According to some in this thread, Vendor would
have an ethical obligation to charge Customer B little or
nothing for the study, or maybe give some money back to Customer
A to spread the cost between the two customers. What then
happens when a Customer C, then D, E, F, ... want a study?
As you can see, the above scenario can get ridiculous. There is
nothing improper or illegal with Vendor charging a price that
Customers agree to pay, and charging it to every Customer that
comes along. Besides, there are other ways to make sure the
government is getting a fair deal, such as verification of price
reasonableness.
Of course, it would be different if Customer A and B's contracts
were time and material or some other sort of cost-type contract,
and Vendor charged Customer B for the full effort without
actually performing the full work. In that case, there would be
some obvious false charging going on.
There are many examples of an effort being perfomed once, with
multiple sales resulting. The software example from Steve Cohen
is a good one. Books, studies, videos, etc. are more examples.
In most cases the price is decided based on projections of
sales. If you sell more than you projected, are you ethically
obligated to send a rebate to the original buyers?
Naturally, we don't have all of the facts. However, I'm not
ready to conclude that the practice even smells like a duck yet.
For the original scenario to be illegal, lots of people would
have to willfully sign false time sheets listing work not
performed. Not impossible, but a hard act to pull off.
By
Brian Fisher
on Wednesday, March 29, 2000 - 08:41 am:
Z,
Your original post qualifies your facts with the phrase "as I'm
told." Your subsequent post qualifies the facts with "to the
best of my knowledge." The scant facts and suggestions that you
have provided certainly raise a potential issue that should be
understood fully before making the "walks like a duck/quacks
like a duck" conclusion.
Your posts do not indicate whether you work for the Government
or for the contractor, or whether you are a contract
administrator, program person, or some other specialty. In
either event, I urge you to review the express terms of the
contract with competent legal counsel before making global
statements that a practice "smacks of fraud."
For example, the contract might provide that the first report
costs "X" dollars, and all subsequent copies of that report cost
"X-Y" dollars (representing the administrative costs of making
copies of the pre-existing product). There are many other
scenarios under which the contractor's actions might be entirely
appropriate. Of course, you won't know this for sure until you
actually look at the CLINs, terms, and conditions in the
contract.
The damage to a contracting officer's or contractor's
reputation/career stemming from a hint (baseless or otherwise)
of a tainted procurement could be immense; not to mention the
bad press, and investment of resources into IG audits, GAO
reports, testimony on the Hill, etc. that are triggered when
something like this happens.
To minimize the risk to all parties (including yourself), talk
to the Government contracting officer or the contractor's
contract administrator. If you are still concerned, talk to
counsel.
By Z. Hrozsmencko on Tuesday,
March 28, 2000 - 06:42 pm:
Well, it walks like a duck and
quacks like a duck... And it sure does smack of potential fraud
to the casual observer. To the best of my knowledge, it is NOT a
fixed price contract. Neither has the practice been implemented,
but it has been mentioned as an impending practice. Several
people inside this organization are upset and preparing resumes
to be distributed immediately, just on the chance that this
potential practice can't be stopped willingly by management.
To answer Eric's concern, since it isn't yet a fully working
thing, I believe that all would be better served by remedying
the situation from inside by revisiting the legal and ethical
aspects and correcting it.
To answer Steve's question, it is not an intellectual property
issue.
To respond to John's question, let's say the contractor is
tasked to produce studies and documents to benefit the agency.
If two or three different divisions of that agency can benefit
from the produced documents, the story told is that the
contractor can bill each division for the full amount of the
effort(s). The feeling within is that if all divisions request
the documents and benefit from their production, then the cost
of producing said documents is borne across the divisions
proportionally, and is NOT billed fully to each division.
Hpefully this adds dimension to the concerns.
By
Steve Cohen on Tuesday, March 28, 2000 - 02:52 pm:
Z....Are you referring to
intellectual property (knowledge)? Software developed at one's
own expense can be licensed on a per copy basis and billed in
the same manner....over and over again.
Steve
By
Eric Ottinger on
Tuesday, March 28, 2000 - 10:31 am:
I agree with John and I think
that it would be a great public service if you identify these
contractors.
To make a trivial but necessary point, this may be legal if the
contracts are fixed price. Otherwise, the audit provisions
should assure that the taxpayers only pay once for a particular
product or service.
By
John Ford on Tuesday,
March 28, 2000 - 09:44 am:
As you have described it, this
practice is illegal as it violates several criminal provisions.
The rule is the government pays a contractor for each hour of
services only once. This holds true even if more than one agency
is paying the contractor. Can you provide more information so
that we can get a clearer picture of what this is about?
By Z. Hrozsmencko on Tuesday,
March 28, 2000 - 06:42 am:
I'm curious about a concept in
billing that I've been told is legal under a TMS contract called
"multiplex billing". As I'm told, a contractor can do the same
task for a multitude of entities and bill each for the full
amount of effort, despite the fact that the job is done only
once. This strikes me as being highly unethical and possibly
exposing one to legal difficulties. Can anyone provide
enlightenment?
|