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Why does the Government require FAR 52.222-42? | |
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By
Karen Rainville
on Tuesday, August 29, 2000 - 02:41 pm:
A Contractor recently asked me a question regarding FAR 52.222-42 - Statement of Equivalent Rates for Federal Hires. Why does the FAR require this clause be included in all service contracts where the Service Contract Act is applicable? The clause states that the data is for "informational purposes only" but what are we telling the contractor by including this? The contractor has to pay employees in accordance with the appropriate Wage Determination anyway for those categories covered under the determination. As for the "professional" labor categories, the contractor can pay them whatever the market determines (regardless of what the Government pays). I guess I am not sure of the intent/purpose of this clause. Any suggestions? By Vern Edwards on Tuesday, August 29, 2000 - 07:37 pm: Karen: By Anonymous on Thursday, August 31, 2000 - 11:54 am: Vern (Or anyone else out there): Thanks for the enlightening
response. I appreciate it. I have a follow-on question, though.
It is not clear to me what the implications of the clause are
for a contractor. As I understand it, the wage determination in
a solicitation/contract spells out the minimum wage that would
be paid by a Federal agency for the various classes of service
employees. By Vern Edwards on Thursday, August 31, 2000 - 12:08 pm: Anonymous: By Kennedy How on Thursday, August 31, 2000 - 12:17 pm: I would make the comment that, up until recently (relatively
speaking), we Government contracting agencies were contracting
under the "lowest acceptable offer" philosophy. The
stereotypical "low bidder" type. As such, a contractor winning
such a bid would naturally try to reduce his costs, in order to
maximize profits. In that case, he could really low-ball his
workers, especially if he's hiring a crew to do whatever it is
he's contracted to do. Minimum wage requirements would help
protect these employees, inasmuch as the Government would
probably want to pay as close to Zero as possible (saving
taxpayer's money, you know), there are limits. By Anonymous on Thursday, August 31, 2000 - 12:45 pm: I didn't intend to imply a "low ball" situation. The scenario
I was alluding to is as follows: Contractor hires a Programmer
at an $18/hour wage rate. 6 months later, an RFP is received
that includes the wage detarmination clause. The wage rate in
the wage determination for the Programmer is $18.65. The
question is, is the contractor required to bump up the
Programmer's wage rate to the $18.65 minimum in the ensuing
proposal? If he doesn't, will the Government require the
increase in order to be responsive and compete for the work? By Kennedy How on Tuesday, September 05, 2000 - 10:46 am: Anon, By Vern Edwards on Tuesday, September 05, 2000 - 12:38 pm: Kennedy: By Larry Edwards on Tuesday, September 05, 2000 - 05:22 pm: To go back to the original question and some of the history surrounding the Service Contract Act, that Act was originally proposed, with support from federal unions, as a way to require contractors to pay the same wages as federal employees got. During the legislative process, that got compromised to the "due consideration" mentioned by Vern. The requirement to list wage rates paid federal employees makes more sense in this context, since contractors would need to know those rates if they had to pay them. The Executive Branch interpreted "due consideration" in the way most favorable (least costly) to them, to the chagrin of the unions. Every so often, you will hear unions complain this is a wrong interpretation since inclusion of federal wage rates in the contract makes sense only if the contractors have to pay that. |